آزمون تئوری خلبانی (PPL، CPL، IR و ATPL)

1.Within which class of airspace in Tehran FIR, IFR and VFR flights receive flight information service only?

1. AA, C, D, G.
2. BA, C, D.
3. CG.
4. DF.

2.Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers environmental protection?

1. AANNEX 15.
2. BANNEX 16.
3. CANNEX 17.
4. DANNEX 18.

3.Where can we find runway obstacle free zone (OFZ) information?

1. AAD 2
2. BENR
3. CGEN
4. DED 1

1.“V2 “is the speed that define as:

1. AMust be attained before reaching a height of 35 ft AGL with all engine operative.
2. BTakeoff decision speed.
3. CMeet the requirement of climb gradient to 3000 ft.
4. DIn some case would be less than V2min.

2.Which statement is correct?

1. AVx use for climb and obstacle clearance.
2. BVx is best angle of climb speed.
3. CVy decrease by increasing altitude for piston engine aircraft.
4. DAll answers are correct.

3.What is the effect of increased mass on the best rate of climb speed (all other factors considered unchanged)?

1. ASpeed for maximum rate of climb increases with increasing mass.
2. BMaximum rate of climb is dependent of mass, but not the speed for maximum rate of climb.
3. CSpeed for maximum rate of climb decreases with increasing mass.
4. DMaximum rate of climb and the corresponding speed are dependent of mass.

1.Within what distances, the track guidance shall take place during straight departure?

1. A8.8 NM
2. B10.8 NM
3. C12.6 NM
4. D15 NM

2.Within which section of airway manual you can find SHIRAZ AIRPORT chart?

1. ARADIO AIDS
2. BMETEOROLOGY
3. CTERMINAL
4. DENROUTE

3.REF Imam Khomeini chart (21-7), what is the maximum holding speed over KAZ?

1. A220 kts
2. B210 kts
3. C230 kts
4. D240 kts

1.An aircraft is at 12000 ft in class F airspace (VFR). The required distance from cloud is:

1. A1500 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally.
2. B1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically.
3. CClear of cloud and in sight of surface.
4. D1500 ft vertical and 1000 m horizontal.

2.What shall be the minimum height for VFR flight over an open air assembly?

1. A500 ft
2. B1000 ft
3. C600 M
4. D1500 ft

3.Clearance limit are limited to:

1. AAppropriate significant point.
2. BControlled airspace boundary
3. CDestination
4. DAll answers are correct

1.Refer to METAR "OIII 151500Z 26010KT 0800 SN SCT035CB BKN100 00/M02 Q1015 A2988" what is the height of ceiling?

1. A1000 Ft
2. B100 Ft
3. C3500 Ft
4. D10000Ft

2.At FL180, the air temperature is -35 °C. At this level density is:

1. AUnable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
2. BGreater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
3. CLess than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
4. DEqual to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.

3.In METAR what does the code "BR" stand for?

1. ASevere icing
2. BMist
3. CSandstorm
4. DEmbedded thunderstorm with hail

1.Which of the following DH and RVR are determined as minima for the Precision approach CAT I operations?

1. A200 ft / 550 m
2. B100 ft / 300 m
3. CNo DH / 175 m
4. DNo DH / 50 m

2.What shall be the minimum visibility at isolated destination aerodrome when no destination alternate is required?

1. A5.5 km
2. B4 km more than procedure minima
3. CA or B
4. DA and B

3.How many altimeter setting shall be equipped an aeroplane intended to operate as a controlled VFR flight?

1. AOne
2. BTwo
3. CAt least One
4. DA or B is correct

1.What is meant by the phrase "READABILITY 2"?

1. AReadable but with difficulty.
2. BReadable.
3. CUnreadable.
4. DReadable now and then.

2.Cherokee EP-ABC receives the following instruction: “E-BC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD UNTIL 2500 FEET BEFORE TURNING RIGHT. WIND 270 DEGREES 6 KNOTS. CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF". What is the correct read back?

1. AStraight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for takeoff, E-BC.
2. BWilco, cleared for takeoff, E-BC.
3. CRight turn after 2500, roger, E-BC.
4. DStraight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for takeoff, E-BC.

3.The time is 04:15 PM. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?

1. AOne six one five.
2. BFour fifteen PM
3. CSixteen fifteen.
4. DFour fifteen in the afternoon.

1.“INCERFA” is code word used to designate:

1. AAlert phase
2. BDistress phase
3. CUncertainly phase
4. DUrgent phase

2.What is the maximum indicated airspeed for VFR flight in class “D” airspace below 10000 ft?

1. A200 kts
2. B250 kts
3. C300 kts
4. D350 kts

3.Which type of separation are provided for IFR flight in class “C” airspace?

1. AIFR from IFR
2. BIFR from VFR
3. CIFR from IFR but IFR from VFR only receive traffic information
4. DA and B are correct

1.From what height, the wind direction indicator shall be visible?

1. A200 m
2. B300 m
3. CAt least 300 m
4. DAll answers are correct

2.Runway end lights shall be:

1. AFixed lights showing variable red.
2. BFixed lights showing variable white.
3. CFixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
4. DFixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

3.What factor shall be considered to provide threshold marking?

1. ARWY length
2. BRWY width
3. CBoth A and B are correct
4. DNone

1.Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled air space shall be given as flight level (FL):

1. AOnly in airspace class A.
2. BWhen QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa.
3. CAbove the transition altitude when applicable.
4. DIf the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.

2.What is meant by RNP4?

1. AThe fix tolerance factor of the navigational equipment is 4%.
2. BNavigation accuracy of 4 NM during 95% of the flight.
3. CMinimum requirements to fly RNAV routes.
4. DAll answers are correct.

3.Which of the following aircraft may include in its special air report the moderate turbulence?

1. ATransonic
2. BSupersonic
3. CSubsonic
4. DA and B are correct

1.Runway threshold wing bar lights shall be fixed unidirectional lights showing …………….. in the direction of approach to the runway.

1. AGreen.
2. BRed.
3. CWhite.
4. DBlue.

2.How can a water airport be identified at night?

1. AAlternate white and green light flashes.
2. BFlashing white and yellow light.
3. CWhite flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
4. DDual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

3.The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

1. AA
2. BC
3. CS
4. DAll answers are correct.

1.Calculate A320’s Mach number at FL320 with TAS 450 Kts and deviation from ISA is -20°C?

1. A0.72
2. B0.75
3. C0.83
4. D0.80

2.You are flying on constant compass heading of 252° Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° to the right. True track is?

1. A242°
2. B262°
3. C280°
4. D224°

3.An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that calculation of usable fuel for a flight for which destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, Trip Fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:

1. A45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours whichever is less.
2. B3 hours at normal cruise consumption.
3. C30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
4. D30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions.

1.Given: True heading: 310° TAS: 200 kts G/S: 176 kts Drift angle: 7° right Calculate the W/V.

1. A090°/33 kts.
2. B360°/33 kts.
3. C270°/33 kts.
4. D180°/33 kts.

2.Given: TAS: 440 Kts HDG: 349° (T) W/V: 040°/40 Kts Calculate the drift and G/S.

1. A4°L - 416 kts.
2. B2°L - 426 kts.
3. C6°R - 395 kts.
4. D5°R - 385 kts.

3.Given: FL310 M 0.76 What is the CAS?

1. A280 kts
2. B274 kts
3. C292 kts
4. D287 kts

1.Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation:

1. AWill not stimulate the seat-of-the-pants sense.
2. BCorresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turn.
3. CCorresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a descent.
4. DMakes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight.

2.Night vision is greatest:

1. AWhen looking directly at an object.
2. BJust after an exposure of bright light.
3. CWhen looking slightly off center of an object.
4. DWhen flying above 5000 ft.

3.Fatigue and stress:

1. ALower the tolerance to hypoxia.
2. BIncrease the tolerance to hypoxia.
3. CDo not affect hypoxia at all.
4. DWill increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15,000 feet.

1.The properties of a gyroscope are: 1) Rigidity in space 2) Rigidity on Earth 3) Precession 4) Schuler oscillations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. A1,4
2. B2,3
3. C1,3
4. D2,4

2.What is the relationship between the density altitude and temperature?

1. ADirect.
2. BIndirect.
3. CIt depends on atmospheric pressure.
4. DA & B are correct.

3.In the Northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if:

1. AAn aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
2. BAn aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
3. CA right turn is entered from a north heading.
4. DA left turn is entered from a north heading.

1.Could 110 pounds of weight be added to station 40" without exceeding the FWD CG limit? Total weight 4550 lbs CG location st. 80.5" FWD CG limit st. 80.0"

1. ANo, the new CG will be at St. 79.03".
2. BNo, the new CG will be at St. 79.5".
3. CYes, the new CG will be at St. 80.95".
4. DYes, the new CG will be at St. 80.30".

2.An aircraft is loaded to a mass of 25000 lbs. A passenger weighing 150 lbs moves back 10 seat rows, a distance of 330 inches. The center of gravity will move;

1. A0.5 in rearward.
2. B2.00 in rearward.
3. C5.00 in rearward.
4. D2.00 in forward.

3.What would be the new CG location if 120 pounds of weight were removed from station 150"? Total weight 2800 lbs CG location station 103"

1. A100.06"
2. B102.06"
3. C100.89"
4. D101.89"

1.The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:

1. AAtmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture.
2. BAtmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sand.
3. CAtmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray.
4. DAtmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash.

2.Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus cloud at summertime are:

1. AHazy weather combined with drizzle and turbulence.
2. BGood visibility, intervals of fine weather and little turbulence.
3. CPoor visibility, continuous rain and little turbulence.
4. DPoor visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence.

3.During a flight over the sea at FL135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019.hPa. What information can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

1. AIts average temperature is the same as ISA.
2. BIt is colder than ISA.
3. CIt is warmer than ISA.
4. DThere is insufficient information to make any assumption.

1.Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aeroplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy?

1. AThe commander.
2. BThe operator.
3. CThe maintenance supervisor.
4. DA JAA authorized person.

2.A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:

1. A15% with ice.
2. B50% with loose snow with a quantity equivalent to more than 2 mm of water.
3. C10% with compacted snow.
4. D25% with loose snow with a quantity equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.

3.The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are secure for:

1. ATakeoff and landing.
2. BTakeoff, landing, taxiing and turbulence.
3. CTakeoff, landing, taxiing, turbulence and during emergencies.
4. DTakeoff, landing and turbulence.

1.The fin of an aircraft is a symmetrical airfoil:

1. AIt will only provide an aerodynamic force when the rudder is moved.
2. BIt will give drag, but no lift because it is a symmetrical airfoil.
3. CIt can give no lift, only drag.
4. DIt could stall if the fin angle of attack is too great.

2.Which changes in airplane control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed decreases?

1. AIncrease the angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift.
2. BMaintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then Increase the angle of attack.
3. CIncrease the angle of attack to produce more lift than weight.
4. DDecrease the angle of attack to compensate for decreasing drag.

3.Comparing the IAS and TAS stall speed at 5.000 ft and sea level, the IAS stalling speed will normally be:

1. AThe same as at sea level but the TAS will be higher.
2. BHigher than at sea level but the TAS will be the same.
3. CThe same as at sea level and the TAS will be the same.
4. DHigher than at sea level and the TAS will be higher.

1.Which is true about homing when using ADF during crosswind conditions?

1. AHoming to a radio station results in a curved path that leads a curved path to the station.
2. BIs a practical navigation method for flying both to and from a radio station.
3. CHoming to a radio station requires that the ADF have an automatically or manually rotatable azimuth.
4. DAll answers are correct

2.An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?

1. A284° with the FROM flag showing.
2. B284° with the TO flag showing.
3. C104° with the TO flag showing.
4. D104° with the FROM flag showing.

3.If an airborne check point is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum permissible bearing error will be:

1. APlus 4, minus 6
2. BPlus or minus 6
3. CPlus 6, minus 4
4. DPlus or minus 4

1.The ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):

1. AAfter TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
2. BBefore TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
3. CAfter TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
4. DBefore TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

2.The crankcase is the component which:

1. AProvides a mounting for an all cooler.
2. BProvides a mounting point for most of the engine components and in which are the main rotating assemblies located.
3. CConverts reciprocating motion into rotary motion.
4. DOperates within the float chamber.

3.What is the purpose of a "relief valve" in the hydraulic system?

1. AMake sure that the pressure in the system exceeds a certain minimum pressure.
2. BMake sure that the pressure does not exceed the maximum permitted pressure in the system.
3. CTo "even out" the pressure in the system.
4. DMake sure that the emergency hand pump will produce enough pressure when used.